According to the edition which I use of the OED, 'pope-holy' is to be be derived from a French Papelard, anf commonly has a sense, or undertones, of 'hypocrisy'. It certainly does in the period before the 'reformation', but I wonder if it might have acquired this more polemical sense during the political controversies after 1533.
I have met this lovely term in an account of a skirmish in the penultimate decade of Tudor Minor, aka Henry VIII. The port authorities at 'Trewrew' wished to search a ship "called the Maudelyn ... thorough the Counsail of thre priest[s], fayning a poope holly pilgrymage to a pardonne in Brytayn ..."
The 'pilgryms' resisted, but were able to kidnap one of the royal officials ... who, in Treguier, got knocked around a fair bit in the strets. Splendid! But I am wondering if there were political or religious reasons for their fate ... or whether the 'pilgrymage' was a hypocritical pretence to cover unreligious activities. Perhaps the presence of three clerics does suggest religious motivation ... but, well, the 'reformation' had not, in 1537 gone very far, had it?
Little more than a century later, a prod account of the spoliation of Canterbury Cathedral in 1642 tells us that "the stones of the pavement ... of that shrine were worn with the kneeling of the idolatrous people, which came on pilgrimage to offer there to that pope-holy saint".
Does this suggest 'hypocrisy' of some sort on the part of Archbishop Becket, or has the term changed into mere abuse of traditional, or papal, religion?
2 comments:
Wikipedia gives the definition as “sanctimonious” and offers that it is “offensive”
Also:
“pope-holy (comparative more pope-holy, superlative most pope-holy)”
No citations, however.
These days, asking 'is the pope a Catholic?' has ceased to be a jest.
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